Casperwolf
:
2960 was the closing price on 2/2 the article says if you have one share on July 1st it will become 20 on the 15th. essentially dividing the cost 2960 by 20. so would those 20 shares then be valued at the divided cost, or at the original cost of say the first share. if it was bought now at 2960. I would think obvious that they are worth the divided amount right, otherwise everyone could go in and make a killing. it's sort of like the cost of a share comes down, however 1 share cannot be purchased. you must get a bundle of 20 or more. Am I making any sense here?
Casperwolf : 2960 was the closing price on 2/2 the article says if you have one share on July 1st it will become 20 on the 15th. essentially dividing the cost 2960 by 20. so would those 20 shares then be valued at the divided cost, or at the original cost of say the first share. if it was bought now at 2960. I would think obvious that they are worth the divided amount right, otherwise everyone could go in and make a killing. it's sort of like the cost of a share comes down, however 1 share cannot be purchased. you must get a bundle of 20 or more. Am I making any sense here?