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Please tell me

If you look at the aggressive trading trend below, why do stock prices rise even if the days of sales dominance continue? Also, why do stock prices rise when there is almost no buying advantage? The same can be said not only by looking at 01850, but also by looking at 01010. Is this because there are transactions that are not reflected in the materials (for example, those from overseas)? Or is it easier to move prices when buying? Or is it some other reason? Somebody please let me know.
Please tell me
Please tell me
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