Please tell me
If you look at the aggressive trading trend below, why do stock prices rise even if the days of sales dominance continue? Also, why do stock prices rise when there is almost no buying advantage? The same can be said not only by looking at 01850, but also by looking at 01010. Is this because there are transactions that are not reflected in the materials (for example, those from overseas)? Or is it easier to move prices when buying? Or is it some other reason? Somebody please let me know.
![Please tell me](https://sgsnsimg.moomoo.com/feed_image/182310787/207e6c9d15923fd5bcc6af8e258887a6.jpg/bigmoo)
![Please tell me](https://sgsnsimg.moomoo.com/feed_image/182310787/eca1adb6a1d930388eb7c59a569d8cfe.jpg/bigmoo)
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Renren2 : It seems that even in a phase where sales are dominant, if there are investors who buy at stock prices equal to or exceeding the best sales signs, stock prices will rise. It may be that many individual investors who placed buy orders at prices indicated by fraudulent groups were used in the market. Section 3.4 on page below.
About order/contract analysis and aggressive trading trends-moomoo Help Center
風車の見張り番 OP Renren2 : Thank you for sharing materials that are easy to understand. I learned that selling and buying aren't always one-on-one.
Renren2 風車の見張り番 OP : I didn't know that well until now either. The mechanism by which fraud groups encouraged purchases every day by showing prices saying how much you can buy today for how much and how much you can buy is OK no matter how much you buy, I don't understand. Then I realized that I had been made complicit in fraudulent stock price manipulation, and I was once again angry. I had them send me a screenshot and read the votes in detail.
風車の見張り番 OP Renren2 : If there is an aggressive trading trend, there is no buying advantage graph, and the price is rising due to only selling dominance, then it's probably a trading stock. I understand it now, and I'm sad.